Is the doctrine of supremacy of Union law a logical, if not necessary, inference from Union treaties? Reflect on the acceptance of the supremacy of EU law by the UK and German courts. Has the decision in the PSPP Case changed anything?

Theodore Konstadinides, ‘The German Constitutional Court’s decision on PSPP: Between mental gymnastics and common sense’ (2020). https://ukconstitutionallaw.org/2020/05/14/theodore-konstadinides-the-german-constitutional-co urts-decision-on-pspp-between-mental-gymnastics-and-common-sense/

Jurisprudence:

1. Case 26/62 Van Gen den Loos [1963]

https://curia.europa.eu/juris/liste.jsf?num=C-26/62

1. PSPP Case BVerfG Judgement of the Second Senate of 5th May 2020 https://www.bundesverfassungsgericht.de/SharedDocs/Pressemitteilungen/EN/2020/bvg20-032.h tml
2. Case 14/83 Sabine Von Colson and others and Land Nordrhein-Westfalen, https://eur-lex.europa.eu/legal-content/EN/TXT/PDF/?uri=CELEX:61983CJ0014&from=EN
3. Case C-106/89 Marleasing SA v La Comercial Internacional de Alimentacion SA.. https://eur-lex.europa.eu/legal-content/EN/TXT/HTML/?uri=CELEX:61989CJ0106&from=EN

Requirement: (Total of 400+ words).

1. Read articles 3-6 TFEU on competence and explain the different categories of competence (exclusive, shared or supporting/coordinating). Look also at the express and implied powers of the Union.
2. The principles of subsidiarity and proportionality are enshrined in the Treaty of the European Union (TEU) to safeguard the areas of competence of the Union, but Members States can still take decisions and actions. Discuss.
3. Is the doctrine of supremacy of Union law a logical, if not necessary, inference from Union treaties? Reflect on the acceptance of the supremacy of EU law by the UK and German courts. Has the decision in the PSPP Case changed anything?
4. Why giving direct effect to directives is particularly problematic? Is indirect effect the answer?